Why are you only looking at income inequality, only in the United States and only in the last 20 years? Look at where that graph was in 1980, for example.

Because you said "over the last couple decades"

But I didn't intend 2000 to be an arbitrary cutoff. 1980 is important because it's right before Reagan- and Thatcher-style economics. And if you look at measures of wealth inequality (e.g. the share of wealth owned by billionaires), that's actually become worse especially during the pandemic.