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Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by lacker on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @04:16PM (#38104412)
100 years ago everyone was worrying about whether the foundations of mathematics were consistent. We figured out some details that we had been taking for granted, like the axiom of choice, how to prevent Russell's paradox, and the inevitable difference between "true" and "provable" (ie Godel's incompleteness). Now that part is pretty much solved, we are fairly confident that the foundations of mathematics are consistent.

IMHO the problem now is that the foundations of mathematics are impractical. Most mathematicians don't actually do mathematics that can be tied back to the foundational axioms. It seems like it should be possible, in theory, but it takes too much work. So most mathematicians prefer communicating their proofs in PDFs rather than in a more rigorous format.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by bvssvni on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @04:51PM (#38105010)
One thing I would like point out with Gödel's incompleteness theorems, is that there are different notions of provability. Gödel uses the notion of "provability" you get from Provability Logic, which is a modal logic where you introduce terms from e.g. Sequent Calculus.

Recently I found another notion of "provability" where Löb's axiom, required in Provability Logic, is absurd. It turns out that this notion fits better with Intuitionistic Propositional Logic than Provability Logic. This allows integrating the meta-language into object-language. This is pretty recent, so I think we still have much to learn about the foundations of mathematics.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by drdeca on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @05:36PM (#38105679)
This makes it kind of sound as if Löb's axiom is used in the proof of Gödel's incompleteness theorems, but Gödel was working in (I think) PA, not in Provability Logic?

I guess you just meant "the notion of provability is the same as the one that would later be described in Provability logic" ?

I viewed the page you linked, but I don't see anywhere where you describe the alternate notion of "provability" you have in mind.

"Provability" in the sense of Gödel's incompleteness theorems, is just, "There exists a proof of it in [the chosen system of axioms + rules of inference]", yes? I don't see how any other notion would be fitting of the name "provability". "provable" , "possible to prove", "a proof exists", all the same thing?

Oh, I guess, if you want to use "there exists" in a specifically constructive/intuitionistic way? (so that to prove "[]P" you would have to show that you can produce a proof of P?)

I think I've seen other people try to do away with the need for a meta-language / make it the same as the object-language, and, I think this generally ends up being inconsistent in the attempts I've seen?

edit: I see you have written 'Self quality a ~~ a is equivalent to ~a, which is called a "qubit".'

I don't know quite what you mean by this, but, _please_ do not call this a qubit, unless you literally mean something whose value is a vector in a 2d Hilbert space.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by bvssvni on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @05:57PM (#38105887)
> I guess you just meant "the notion of provability is the same as the one that would later be described in Provability logic" ?

yes

> I viewed the page you linked, but I don't see anywhere where you describe the alternate notion of "provability" you have in mind.

See section "HOOO EP"

>Oh, I guess, if you want to use "there exists" in a specifically constructive/intuitionistic way? (so that to prove "[]P" you would have to show that you can produce a proof of P?)

This would be `|- p` implies `□p`, which is the N axiom in modal logic (used by Provability Logic).

In Provability Logic, you can't prove `□false => false`. If you can prove this, then Löb's axiom implies `false`, hence absurd. `□p => p` for all `p` is the T axiom in modal logic. In IPL, if have `true |- false`, then naturally you can prove `false`. So, you can only prove `□false => false` if you already have an inconsistent theory.

Provability Logic is biased toward languages that assume that the theory is consistent. However, if you want to treat provability from a perspective of any possible theory, then favoring consistency at meta-level is subjective.

> I think I've seen other people try to do away with the need for a meta-language / make it the same as the object-language, and, I think this generally ends up being inconsistent in the attempts I've seen?

I have given this some thought before and I think it is based on fix-point results of predicates of one argument in Provability Logic. For example, in Gödel's proof, he needs to encode a predicate without arguments in order to create the Gödel sentence. In a language without such fix-points, this might not be a problem.

> I don't know quite what you mean by this, but, _please_ do not call this a qubit, unless you literally mean something whose value is a vector in a 2d Hilbert space.

The name "qubit" comes from the classical model, where you generate a random truth table using the input bit vector as seed. So, the proposition is in super-position of all propositions and hence behaves like a "qubit" in a classical approximation of a quantum circuit.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by drdeca on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @08:47PM (#38107476)
Something being random and/or undetermined is not sufficient for it to be like a qubit. You need the linear algebra aspect for the name to be appropriate, IMO.

> See section "HOOO EP"

I have looked through that section, and afaict, nowhere in it do you define an alternative notion of “provability”?

> In Provability Logic, you can't prove `□false => false`. If you can prove this, then Löb's axiom implies `false`, hence absurd.

Why do you expect to be able to prove `□false => false` ? I.e. why do you expect to be able to prove `not □false`, i.e. prove the consistency of the system you are working in.

> Provability Logic is biased toward languages that assume that the theory is consistent. However, if you want to treat provability from a perspective of any possible theory, then favoring consistency at meta-level is subjective.

I’m not really sure what you mean by “favoring [...] is subjective.” . Also, if you want to do reasoning from within an inconsistent theory, then I’d hope it is at least paraconsistent, as otherwise you aren’t going to get much of value? Or at least, nothing with any guarantee. If you aren’t aiming at a paraconsistent logic, I don’t follow your point about not wanting to favor the assumption that the system is consistent.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by bvssvni on Thursday November 02, 2023 @04:22AM (#38110454)
> Something being random and/or undetermined is not sufficient for it to be like a qubit. You need the linear algebra aspect for the name to be appropriate, IMO.

Naming things is hard. Given how constrained Propositional Language is as a language, I do not think there is much risk of misinterpreting it. I needed something to associate with "superposition" but also fit with "quality". Both "qubit" and "quality" starts with "qu", so I liked the name.

It does not bother me if people find another better name for it.

> I have looked through that section, and afaict, nowhere in it do you define an alternative notion of “provability”?

I do not want to create a controversy around Provability Logic by making too strong claims for some people's taste. What I meant is that this section is explaining HOOO EP and my interest is in communicating what it is on its own sake, without needing to compare it to Provability Logic all the time. However, since HOOO EP is so similar to Provability Logic, it requires some clarification. I hope you found the section useful even though you were not able to see how it is an alternative notion of provability from its definition.

> Why do you expect to be able to prove `□false => false` ? I.e. why do you expect to be able to prove `not □false`, i.e. prove the consistency of the system you are working in.

I think this is trying to think about logic as a peculiar way. HOOO EP was not developed to reason about consistency. It has its own motivation that makes sense. However, once you have HOOO EP, you can start discussing how it relates to consistency of theories.

It makes sense, in a sense of consistency, from the perspective where an inconsistent theory is absurd. Absurd theories can prove anything, so there is no distinction between true and false statements. Now, if you interpret `□false` as an assumption that one can prove false, then of course, one can prove false. `□false => false` is the same as `!□false`. Does this mean that it proves its own consistency? No, because you made the assumption `□false`. You have only talked about what you can prove in the context of `□false`. From this perspective, `□false => false` is trivially true.

Provability Logic does not allow you to think of `□false` as meaning "I can prove `false`". Instead, it is interpreted as "this theory is inconsistent" but without assigning this statement a particular meaning. This means, there is a gap between "I can prove `false`" and "this theory is inconsistent". Now, if you ignore the gap, then you are just making an error of interpretation. You have to respect the formal sense, where Provability Logic can have two different notions of absurdity while naturally you would think of them as one. However, if you want to have one instead of two, then you need HOOO EP.

> Also, if you want to do reasoning from within an inconsistent theory, then I’d hope it is at least paraconsistent, as otherwise you aren’t going to get much of value?

It sounds like you are assuming HOOO EP is inconsistent? Why are you speculating about my motivations in a such context?

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by drdeca on Thursday November 02, 2023 @12:37PM (#38116164)
> Provability Logic does not allow you to think of `□false` as meaning "I can prove `false`". Instead, it is interpreted as "this theory is inconsistent" but without assigning this statement a particular meaning.

“It is provable in system X that False” and “system X is inconsistent” are the same statement. That’s what it means for a system to be inconsistent: there is a proof in the system of the statement False.

So, no, you’re wrong: in probability logic, []False can be interpreted as “it is provable (in this system) that False”.

> It sounds like you are assuming HOOO EP is inconsistent?

While I do suspect it to be, that isn’t why I said that. I was saying that because you were seemingly saying that probability logic has a bias favoring reasoning from within a consistent system. And, I was saying, “why would you want to be reasoning within an inconsistent system? Shouldn’t something be suited for reasoning within a consistent system, seeing as reasoning in an inconsistent system gives you nonsense?”

> I hope you found the section useful even though you were not able to see how it is an alternative notion of provability from its definition.

It didn’t provide me with the answer I was seeking, and so I will instead ask you directly again: what alternative notion of probability do you have in mind?

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by bvssvni on Friday November 03, 2023 @03:12AM (#38125476)
Logic by default does not have a bias toward consistency. The bias is added by people who design and use mathematical languages using logic. It does not mean that the theory you are using is inconsistent.

Asking "why do you want to be reasoning within an inconsistent system?" is like facing a dead end, because you are supposing a bias that was never there in the first place. As if, logic cares about what you want. You only get out what you put in. Bias in => bias out.

I am speculating about the following: If we don't bias ourselves in favor of consistency at the meta-level, then the correct notion of provability is HOOO EP. If we are biased, then the correct notion is Provability Logic.

In order to see HOOO EP as a provability notion, you have to interpret the axioms as a theory about provability. This requires mathematical intuition, for example, that you are able to distinguish a formal theory from its interpretation. Now, I can only suggest a formal theory, but the interpretation is up to users of that theory.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by drdeca on Friday November 03, 2023 @03:32AM (#38125598)
> In order to see HOOO EP as a provability notion, you have to interpret the axioms as a theory about provability.

A notion can generally be prior to a particular formalization. If you have an alternative notion of probability in mind, you should be able to express it.

> Now, I can only suggest a formal theory, but the interpretation is up to users of that theory.

Ok, well, it has no users other than yourself, so if you want to communicate how it could be useful, I recommend you find a way of expressing/communicating an interpretation of it.

—- Also, I think your idea of a “bias towards consistency” is unclearly described at best.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by layer8 on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @04:57PM (#38105107)
> Recently I found another notion of "provability"

Any pointers to that alternative notion?

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by bvssvni on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @05:04PM (#38105216)
I'm implementing it in this project: https://crates.io/crates/hooo
Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by deltasepsilon on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @06:52PM (#38106499)
I'm attempting to understand you, so:

Are you saying that Löb's axiom, which states that the provability of "the provability of p implies p" implies the provability of p, necessarily prejudices some implicit assumption of consistency to the meta-language?

How so, and/or, what are the axioms, or derived properties, of this new notion of provability you have uncovered?

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by bvssvni on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @07:36PM (#38106932)
> Are you saying that Löb's axiom, which states that the provability of "the provability of p implies p" implies the provability of p, necessarily prejudices some implicit assumption of consistency to the meta-language?

Yes. One way to put it: Provability Logic is balancing on a knife-edge. It works, but just barely. However, you can turn it around and say the new notion is balancing on a knife-edge by requiring DAG (Directed Acyclic Graph) at meta-level. They way I see it, is that both approaches have implicit assumptions and you have to trade one with another.

I am working on an implementation of the new notion of provability (https://crates.io/crates/hooo), after finding the axioms last year (it took several months):

    pow_lift : a^b -> (a^b)^c

    tauto_hooo_imply : (a => b)^c -> (a^c => b^c)^true

    tauto_hooo_or : (a | b)^c -> (a^c | b^c)^true
As a modal logic the difference is surprisingly small, by swapping Löb's axiom with T. `tauto_hooo_imply` is slightly stronger than K.

The major difference is that `|- p` equals `p^true` instead of implying, if you treat `|-` as internal. If you treat it as external, then you can think of it as N + T.

I needed this theory to handle reasoning about tautological congruent operators.

However, once you have this, you can perfectly reason about various modal logical theories by keeping separate modality operators, including Provability Logic, e.g. `modal_n_to : N' -> all(a^true => □a)`.

So, it is not a tradeoff that loses Provability Logic. Instead, you get a "finalized" IPL for exponential propositions. This is why I think of as a natural way of extending IPL with some notion of provability.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by deltasepsilon on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @09:30PM (#38107822)
Thanks for your response. I'm not very familiar with reasoning in modal logic so I'm finding it hard to get an intuition for your `^` operator. Yes, it does seem like some kind of generalized provability. Does `a^b` mean `a` is provable in all worlds in which `b` is valid, i.e. taken as an axiom in the underlying proof theory, or something like that?

This is very interesting, but unfortunately I have more mundane things to get to. Hopefully I'll find some time to play with your axioms and relearn whatever modal logic I once knew.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by bvssvni on Thursday November 02, 2023 @04:29AM (#38110507)
> Does `a^b` mean `a` is provable in all worlds in which `b` is valid, i.e. taken as an axiom in the underlying proof theory, or something like that?

Yes. You can also think of it as a function pointer `b -> a`. Unlike lambdas/closures, a function pointer can not capture variables from the environment. So, if you have a function pointer of type `b -> a`, then you can produce an element of type `a` from an element of type `b`.

This sounds almost like the same thing as with lambdas/closures. The difference is that a lambda can capture variables from the environment, such that `b => a` is possible "at run-time" in a way that does not hold for every possible world. So, the distinction between function pointers and lambdas/closures can be thought of as different notions of provability at static compile-time and dynamic run-time.

> One more thing, what are you calling `N`?

N is the name of the axiom in Modal Logic. It is called the "Necessitation Rule". See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Modal_logic#Axiomatic_systems

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by aeonik on Friday November 03, 2023 @10:04AM (#38128926)
This reminds me of Heisenberg's uncertainty principle but at a much deeper and more generalized level.
Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by libraryofbabel on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @05:53PM (#38105850)
> IMHO the problem now is that the foundations of mathematics are impractical. Most mathematicians don't actually do mathematics that can be tied back to the foundational axioms.

I suppose my followup to that is, why is this a problem? Does it lead to bad mathematics? (For what definition of “bad”?) Would we be able to solve unsolved problems if we tied things back to foundations more? Mathematicians have never really done much mathematics that ties back to the foundational axioms — why change? Rigor is not really much of an end in itself - surely people do mathematics because it is useful or beautiful, or both?

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by jimwhite42 on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @06:09PM (#38106029)
And you can apply it, when you do, it really works.
Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by lacker on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @06:45PM (#38106437)
I think AI for mathematics will help us solve unsolved problems. There should be a virtuous cycle during its development.

1. More formalized training data makes the math AI better

2. Better math AI helps us formalize more known mathematics

But right now math AI is not very useful. It isn't at the point where ChatGPT is for programming, where the AI is really helpful for a lot of programming tasks even if it isn't superhuman yet. So the virtuous cycle hasn't started yet. But I think we will get there.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by fatbird on Thursday November 02, 2023 @12:31PM (#38116047)
Much progress has been made in mathematics by demonstrating that problems in one realm are logically equivalent to solved problems in another realm, allowing proofs from the other realm to support proofs in the first. The most obvious example is the solution to Fermat's Last Theorem by Andrew Wiles, which wended far afield through the Taniyama–Shimura conjecture involving elliptic curves and modularity.

So in theory, with a solid foundation for mathematics, and new work rigorously tied back to it, this sort of thing should be both easier and more efficient.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by HappMacDonald on Friday November 03, 2023 @08:41AM (#38127855)
The real benefit is certainty.

If somebody makes a proposition and nobody is able to properly vet it, or if you just get a bunch of white heads to nod sagely and endorse it, very little prevents there existing a flaw that invalidates the whole thing which might go unnoticed for decades and ruin anything anyone tries to build atop of the result.

It's the same as security hardening in code, or checking for med interactions at the pharmacists. Or checking to make sure that the absolutely correct pill is being dispensed and not mixed up "Buttle/Tuttle" style with some other similar looking pill.

Formal rigor paved all the way from the proposition to the axioms is not 100%, nothing is 100%. But formal rigor paved over that entire distance redistributes all potential for error to the proof chain itself which is now far easier for a non-AI computer to verify, and to the strength of the axioms themselves which have had more scrutiny paid to them than any other statements in the history of mathematics.

Another important point is that you do not have to go all the way back to the axioms if someone else has already formally proved other complex statements you can rely upon instead, then you only have to pave the length of your driveway to the nearest communal road.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by jimwhite42 on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @06:05PM (#38105976)
> It seems like it should be possible, in theory, but it takes too much work.

The definition of a valid mathematical proof that I've heard mathematicians use is if it convinces other mathematicians. I think there's integrity in depth in mathematical proofs for lots of reasons, tying back to an axiomatic basis is a lot of extra work for likely no benefit.

On formal mathematics, almost no mathematicians pay attention to this afaik. It's something that lives in philosophy departments, not mathematics.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by bvssvni on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @06:17PM (#38106133)
I think the most exciting work in mathematics today is in the formal foundations. However, I can also understand mathematicians who are thinking like this:

1. I only need normal congruence

2. I only need perfect information games

Under problems that are solvable using these two assumptions, there is little benefit in tying proofs back to an axiomatic basis. Once you drop one of these two assumptions, proofs get much harder and a solid foundation gets more important.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by disconcision on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @09:58PM (#38108036)
this may be changing. as we speak. terence tao has recently been working to formalize existing work in lean. and has already found a bug in one of his published proofs. i think there will always ish be a need for mathematical proofs in the contemporary sense, but at this point i don't think its too implausible to suggest a future where the mathematical mainstream moves towards some hybrid mathematical exposition of computationally verified artefact.

https://mathstodon.xyz/@tao/111287749336059662

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by jimwhite42 on Thursday November 02, 2023 @03:56AM (#38110236)
I think it's likely that axiomatic approaches, and formal approaches will continue to produce interesting results and have some effect on regular mathematics.

But this is very different to suggesting that most regular mathematics will switch to using formal proofs. There's a big ergonomics gap at the moment.

An analogy could be to look how pure mathematicians look down on applied mathematicians' work, the applied mathematicians don't care, they just get on with their own standards. You need regular mathematicians to choose to switch over en masse, what will compel them to do that?

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by zmgsabst on Thursday November 02, 2023 @05:47AM (#38111110)
…success by Tao and Scholze in formalizing their work and gaining appreciable benefits such as correcting technical errors.

Which is happening right now — and the younger mathematicians who are supporting those efforts (and more broadly, things like Lean libraries) are gaining the experience while making the ergonomic changes.

That is, the person you’re replying to isn’t unaware of the historic problems: they’re pointing out that migration is starting now with early adopters like Tao and Scholze.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by jimwhite42 on Thursday November 02, 2023 @09:51AM (#38113502)
I think a little hesitance on the overall success of these sorts of projects is prudent, given the history of axiomatic and formal expections and reality.

But let's say they make huge amounts of progress - they might improve the ergonomics enough that the formal foundations of mathematics will be brought into mathematics departments as a standard, legitimate and popular subject. But I still can't see how this would affect most mathematics.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by BoiledCabbage on Thursday November 02, 2023 @01:46PM (#38117380)
> But I still can't see how this would affect most mathematics.

It won't, in the same way that introducing physics didn't affect philosophers. They were still free to do philosophy. But most new innovation and innovators came up doing physics instead - and that's been where all the growth had been for centuries.

In the end ungrounded theory is better than nothing. But grounded theory beats out ungrounded theory hands down.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by JonChesterfield on Thursday November 02, 2023 @07:19AM (#38111835)
> On formal mathematics, almost no mathematicians pay attention to this afaik. It's something that lives in philosophy departments, not mathematics.

In the old days there were philosophers. They sought truth through thought and wisdom. Some started to measure reality and compare thought against that measurement, but real philosophers paid little heed for it didn't matter.

Testing their theory became known as physics. It turned out the testing against reality can be used without the theory, which we call engineering. We still have philosophers and they still pay little heed to measurement.

There is a similar disaster inbound for mathematicians. Formal mathematics is tedious and mostly only shows things that you were pretty sure were true anyway, so why bother.

It turns out the physicists and engineers have unsportingly built machines which are really, really good at the tedious bookwork required by formal mathematics. That is going to go exactly the same way that introducing measurement to philosophy went for the philosophers.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by aleph_minus_one on Thursday November 02, 2023 @08:34AM (#38112618)
> There is a similar disaster inbound for mathematicians. Formal mathematics is tedious and mostly only shows things that you were pretty sure were true anyway, so why bother.

> It turns out the physicists and engineers have unsportingly built machines which are really, really good at the tedious bookwork required by formal mathematics. That is going to go exactly the same way that introducing measurement to philosophy went for the philosophers.

Formalized mathematics is just a very small subset of what mathematicians work on: in my observation people who work on (computer) formalized proofs often rather sit in CS departments.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by mikhailfranco on Thursday November 02, 2023 @04:23PM (#38119578)
The canonical paper on this was written by De Millo, et al., but it has a rather ungrammatical and incomprehensible title that does it no favors. However, the al. include Lipton and Perlis, so listen up...

Social Processes and Proofs of Theorems and Programs

https://dl.acm.org/doi/pdf/10.1145/359104.359106 [pdf]

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by whatshisface on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @08:38PM (#38107405)
Mathematicians have always been about equally certain that their foundations were consistent, but have gone from not knowing what they really were to expecting to eventually prove them consistent to knowing they can't be proven consistent.
Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by skissane on Wednesday November 01, 2023 @09:32PM (#38107841)
> Now that part is pretty much solved, we are fairly confident that the foundations of mathematics are consistent.

Well, if you want them to be. I’m quite fascinated by the field of inconsistent mathematics, which attempts to show one can do real and useful mathematics given foundations which are at least tolerant of inconsistency (or even actually inconsistent)

https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/mathematics-inconsistent/

https://ir.canterbury.ac.nz/server/api/core/bitstreams/d6722...

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by hnfong on Thursday November 02, 2023 @12:17AM (#38108931)
> inevitable difference between "true" and "provable" (ie Godel's incompleteness). Now that part is pretty much solved, we are fairly confident that the foundations of mathematics are consistent.

Your assertion about the inevitability is true only under specific axioms. If you are willing to drop the notion that infinity exists, or the law of excluded middle (and maybe others), the problems that arise from Gödel's incompleteness theorems don't necessarily apply.

I'm very far from mathematician circles so I don't know how they actually interpret Gödel, but the idea of being "fairly confident" that math foundations are consistent while knowing that either there are true statements that we can't prove, or that the foundations aren't consistent, feels like a pretty weird thing to me.

I always thought most mathematicians just looked at Gödel like he discovered an interesting novelty, then ignored him and went back to doing whatever math they were already doing, instead of losing sleep over what his theorem implied.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by tsimionescu on Thursday November 02, 2023 @06:38AM (#38111521)
That there are statements which might be true but we don't know how to prove was always the reality in mathematics. That this is not a temporary reality but something we're doomed to was thus not a huge revelation. Definitely not something I would expect anyone to lose sleep over.

Also, is it true that constructive mathamtics actually escapes Godel's theorems? My understanding was that any system strong enough to contain regular arithmetic is subject to it. Either way, constructive math is more limited in what it accepts as proofs, so there will be more, not fewer statements that are true but unprovable with such a system.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by dsheets on Thursday November 02, 2023 @09:52AM (#38113524)
Classical logic embeds in intuitionistic logic by Gödel–Gentzen see https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Double-negation_translation
Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by paulddraper on Thursday November 02, 2023 @01:31AM (#38109364)
> It seems like it should be possible, in theory, but it takes too much work.

Biologists don't model behaviors based on the four fundamental forces of physics.

It seems like it should be possible, in theory, but it takes too much work.

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by nextaccountic on Thursday November 02, 2023 @11:22PM (#38124073)
they don't, but they use chemistry

i guess that a point can be made that, even though chemistry is just applied quantum electrodynamics, people seldom derive it from first principles

Re:What do we mean by "the foundations of mathematics"? by hoseja on Thursday November 02, 2023 @08:55AM (#38112847)
I've recently found out String Theory got so big partially because Calabi-Yau manifolds have some neat, mathematically tractable properties. (The one I somewhat understand is, being manifolds, they are locally smooth everywhere, which... doesn't seem like it should be a hard requirement for building blocks of reality.) Feels like that joke about looking for your lost keys under the streetlamp because there is light there, even though you lost the keys somewhere completely different.