Sure, and I think all-party consent should be required if a call has any guests. My point was much shallower—just that OP/Zoom is using language that suggests “customer consent” is some separate thing they would ask for, when in fact using the software (accepting the TOS) is that consent.
Most people in Zoom calls at any moment are in calls where they are not the customer for that call. I would guess most Zoom users have never been customers in that sense, as in they never initiate calls and may not have an account.