I'm not claiming that activities that were allowed by the ruling has no influence on politicians, just that "legalised bribery" is objectively false. You might argue that the two are kinda the same thing, so equating them for rhetorical effect is fine, but this presents a problem: what the supreme court actually legalizes bribery? What would we call it then? We already established that they "legalized bribery", so we can't say that again.