There is some historical evidence this is possible within societies. See Léon Cogniet's Louis Philippe I[1]. However, I don't exactly have any evidence that our society today, specifically in the workplace, that this holds true.
1. Painting, 1792. https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:L%C3%A9on_Cogniet_-_...
Based on your comments, what seems to be driving your position instead is an assumption that there is a grave social injustice aimed at men. Is it not?
When you mention "using sexuality at work," what is your mental model for this?
Is it something other than:
- A woman does something that I perceive as sexual
- She benefits from this because either my peers or myself respond to this favorably
- This connotes an advantage she has over them or myself
- This puts me at a comparative or direct disadvantage compared to her