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Re:How can some infinities be bigger than others? by yarg on Wednesday April 19, 2023 @11:19PM (#35635974)
How though (genuine question)?

I can see space filling curves through I^I, but I can't see them covering R^I.

How does a space-filling curve cover a plane without being filled with infinitesimal discontinuities?

Re:How can some infinities be bigger than others? by adgjlsfhk1 on Thursday April 20, 2023 @12:13AM (#35636314)
Hilbert curves
Re:How can some infinities be bigger than others? by yarg on Thursday April 20, 2023 @12:33AM (#35636444)
Yes, I've got that part - but that only gets me as far as R * I ^ (d - 1), not R ^ d.

(d being the dimensionality of the curve.)

As I think about this there's an unfilled infinitesimal R ^ (d - 1) space orthogonal to every point on the curve.

I don't see how it is that that does not manifest as discontinuities in the filled space.

Re:How can some infinities be bigger than others? by Skeime on Thursday April 20, 2023 @04:55AM (#35637741)
You can get from R^d to I^d (with I the open unit interval) easily by applying x -> (arctan(x) + pi/2)/pi and y -> tan(pi * y - pi/2) to each coordinate. There are also ways to go from R to the closed unit interval. You can then combine this with space-filling curves for I^d.
Re:How can some infinities be bigger than others? by yarg on Thursday April 20, 2023 @05:09AM (#35637805)
You can even go from R to I^d.

The problem that I'm having is in getting from R to R^d, which I still don't think is possible - look at the comment where I mention "surjections" and "bijections".

Re:How can some infinities be bigger than others? by Skeime on Thursday April 20, 2023 @01:10PM (#35643030)
By applying the map from I^d to R^d (using the tan-arctan-construction above in each coordinate) after the map from R to R^d, you get a map from R to R^d.
Re:How can some infinities be bigger than others? by yarg on Thursday April 20, 2023 @10:42PM (#35649210)
I^n is just a countably infinite subset of R^n.
Re:How can some infinities be bigger than others? by Skeime on Saturday April 22, 2023 @07:44AM (#35665549)
No, I^n is also uncountable. In fact, the usual proof for the uncountability of R is really proof of the uncountability of I, and then the natural injection into R is used to extend it to R.