Re:How can some infinities be bigger than others?
by Skeime on Thursday April 20, 2023 @01:10PM
(#35643030)
By applying the map from I^d to R^d (using the tan-arctan-construction above in each coordinate) after the map from R to R^d, you get a map from R to R^d.
Re:How can some infinities be bigger than others?
by yarg on Thursday April 20, 2023 @10:42PM
(#35649210)
I^n is just a countably infinite subset of R^n.
The problem that I'm having is in getting from R to R^d, which I still don't think is possible - look at the comment where I mention "surjections" and "bijections".