The answer in the US is simple: the Fed.
A bank can make an infinite amount of loans. They are not constrained by anything.
The only "limitation" they have is the future default rate of the people who accept loans from them.
The way a loan works is: they make a loan to someone and then "just in time", they borrow the money from the Fed to cover that loan.
Now, many banks take customer deposits. I think there are 2 reasons they do that:
1. Deposits may be less expensive than borrowing from the Fed.
2. Account holders are warm leads for future loans.
But in principle, a bank doesn't have to take any deposits.
Ehhh, how does that work exactly? They go up to the discount window and borrow from the Fed every time they issue a loan?
I don't know. I don't work at a bank.
But loans aren't typically available immediately - they take time to clear. It doesn't seem unreasonable to me that they'd bundle the day's loans (or maybe a few hours at a very large bank) to limit the number of transactions they'd have to make.
tl;dr yes, banks create money out of thin air. It's been this way for decades.
A bank can make an infinite amount of loans. They are not constrained by anything.
They are constrained by capital and/or reserve requirements The way a loan works is: they make a loan to someone and then "just in time", they borrow the money from the Fed to cover that loan.
Nope. Banks can borrow against their government securities from Central Banks by "rediscounting" during discount windows, if they need extra liquidity. Note that this is not the preferred method since Central Banks usually charges a premium. These are secured loans.See https://www.federalreserve.gov/monetarypolicy/discountrate.h...
That's incorrect, there are very strict limits on the solvency ratio placed on the banks that you usually deal with.
https://www.investopedia.com/ask/answers/052515/how-are-risk...
If none of the loan money was redeposited than the bank couldn’t create new money.
But a bank could easily (as long as the bank is 'solvent' according to the local central bank) write a loan will in excess of it's deposits, technically it need not have any deposits at all.
Fractional reserve banking is about having more deposits (on the liability side) than reserves (on the assets side).
I won't say that it's not possible for a bank to have far more loans on their books than they have deposits (they could finance themselves differently) but I'm not sure if that actually happens. Can you give an example of a bank having far more loans on their books than they have deposits?
In your worldview, can you explain how it is possible for a bank to have far more loans on their books than they have deposits (see: fractional reserve banking)?