If you did nothing but buy it, hold it, and sell it on, you didn't use the product. If you integrated it and sold it on, you didn't use the product.
Once you start actually using it, once it becomes a 'used product', selling it has no VAT and you cannot reclaim VAT. At least that's what google results told me. Were they wrong?
The exact law may be more complicated (you may have to pay the full 20 cents now and file for a 10 cents tax rebate; you may not be eligible for this if you are an individual and not a registered organization, etc.) but that shouldn't affect the basic principle.
For example, if you buy a computer for 100$+10$ VAT, and you then use that computer in you back office to keep your accounting, and you sell 1000$+100$ VAT worth of haircuts in the month where you bought the computer, you only owe the government 90$ of VAT even though you are an end user of the computer by any reasonable definition.
If you later sell the computer on to a refurbisher for 50$+5$VAT, and the refurbisher sells it on for 75$+7.5$ VAT, they will only owe the government 2.5$ VAT.
So normal people don't have to pay VAT when selling used things, but larger entities do.
VAT works something like this: when you buy X, you pay VAT on X. If you then sell X, you reclaim the VAT on X from the government. The last "user", the one that didn't sell X to anyone else (or integrate it into a larger product that they sell to anyone else) is the only one that effectively pays any tax once you draw the line.