This is why we measure, and why Austrian economics fell out of favor decades ago.
See Japan for a concrete example. [1, 2] Their M2 money supply is almost 2.5X higher since 1990 but their CPI is dead flat over the same time period. It's actually seriously problematic for them.
How has the supply increased in this scenario? What if, instead of minting the coin, you just tell people that you've done so?
The supply of money has only increased if you're able to spend the putative addition to the money supply.
Are you asking how supply works in my hypothetical, simplified example where the point I'm trying to make is that new supply in isolation doesn't matter - what you do with it does?
Or as you asking how it happens in the real-world example of Japan, where their supply increased from 400000B JPY to 1200000B JPY between 1990 and present, while everything remained the same price? And how this is seriously problematic in their economy?
What matters isn't what you do with "money"; it's what you can do with it.
But there are other things that affect the value of money. Tripling the money supply and seeing the value of money stay constant tells you that something else was pulling the value of the yen up at the same time that additional supply was pulling it down.
This is not true, though, haha.
Which is why the Austrian model, which only takes into account the former, is obviously and woefully incomplete - and has been rejected.
An increase in supply is always a debasement.
It's true that you might see the following chronology:
1/1/2020: value of the currency measured
6/6/2020: supply of the currency increased
1/1/2021: value of the currency measured; it's higher than it was last year!
But that doesn't mean the issue on 6/6/2020 wasn't a debasement. It definitely was, and the reason it doesn't look that way is your very low-resolution measurement of value. If the supply increase hadn't happened, the value on 1/1/2021 would have been even higher.