I used Japanese, like the article did, as an example for this reason. Japanese has no grammatical gender like French. But Japanese is gendered. There are patterns in Japanese, where men and women use pronouns differently, and have slightly different patterns to which grammatical forms they use, and when. Women tend to use polite forms, in pronoun and noun choice as well as verb conjugation, more than men do. Small differences in sentence final particles, and so on. In practice the standard language becomes nearly gender-neutral in formal, polite contexts. Still, there's a real effect in Japanese, where men and women do speak and even write slightly differently. Male students of Japanese can even suffer a problem where they sound effeminate because they have modelled themselves on teachers who are mostly women.

I was just observing this general effect is probably true, to some degree, big or small, for most languages. It's probably a little more pronounced in Japanese than English. In neither case is it anywhere distinct enough to call it a separate dialect for men and women.

> Most languages have far more obvious grammatical distinctions.

Grammatical gender like French or Arabic is pretty unusual, really. It's common in the Indo-European and Semitic languages, which are prominent by number of speakers, but grammatical gender is fairly rare when surveying the world's language families as a whole. It's completely absent from many of them. The whole Sino-Tibetan language family (including modern Chinese), for example. They get along fine with a single third person pronoun (in speech) and no grammatical gender.