[1] - https://www.taxpolicycenter.org/model-estimates/tax-units-ze...
It doesn't make a lot of sense, but the fact of the matter is that the phrase "income tax" as commonly used does not include payroll taxes. "Income tax" refers only to the tax on "taxable income", i.e. your net income after deductions and credits. Payroll tax, by way of contrast, is taken from the very first dollar you make, so the only way you can avoid paying that is if you are unemployed. Saying that "61% of Americans do not contribute to the pool of money that is spent by the federal government as a result of their income" is tantamount to saying that 61% of Americans are unemployed, which is plainly not the case. (BTW, "income" in the sense of "income tax" does include dividends and capital gains, which are not subject to payroll taxes. So it is possible to make millions while unemployed and pay no payroll taxes. That is actually not uncommon. In fact, it's the norm among retired people.)
But I respect your opinion, and I hope you are able to forgive me.
Like the sibling said. It should be an update or edit. Not a change of the comment entirely.
Hope you can make that change as there are a lot of comments that have replied to you.
Cheers for acknowledging you made a mistake. Like many others. That is sometimes hard for me to admit.
EDIT: This to me is another indicator of the narrative pushing and stat specifying that muddies the waters.
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It would be quite helpful if the net worth/wealth of individuals who don’t pay either is given as well. When that 43% figure is pointed out. Generally people only think of lower economic class people. Not situations like the previous president not paying taxes for a number of years.
Otherwise all these stats still do not change my original point that they all muddy the waters and people assume the stats are only referring to lower income individuals or “leeches” who are of lower socioeconomic levels too.
The 43.3% was the % of tax units that had a net negative income and payroll taxes (thought I doubt this included the employer side of the tax which for economics purposes falls on the worker). But that was also the Covid year.
Most years it's 25%-22%, which doesn't seem high for the poor, the disabled, and the retired.
The question I have is how to have policies that don’t hurt that 16.5%. It seems unfair to go after the elderly and take away the money they have worked hard to save. They are already being hurt by inflation, which sits at about 5%.
That’s fairly important context. 43% is not a typical number, and as you can see in the report, it is expected to return to baseline quickly.
Your total tax liability can become zero, even post the 7-ish% Social Security and such, due to the EITC and so on. For example, if you make $20,000 / yr but have two children (made up numbers), you probably end up with a sum of zero.
So I do not understand your first sentence. Maybe you can clarify.
> They do not pay Federal Payroll Taxes, because those are considered Federal Income Taxes. Why would they be different? Taxes come out of their paycheck, of which they get back from the government when their taxes are due.
> The point is that 61% of Americans do not contribute to the pool of money that is spent by the federal government as a result of their income (though they do pay as a result of sales and other taxes).
Payroll taxes are paid by the employer.
Half of payroll taxes are paid by the employer. The other half are paid by the employee.
And if the employer wasn't paying that half, they might pay at least some portion of that to the employee. And employers don't pay any payroll tax for non-employees.
This _isn't_ true at the state level, where payroll taxes may be paid by an employer and not the employee.
In the end it is a wash.
That's not true in my state.
>In the end it is a wash.
Not even close.
Show me a state that has combined (employer/employee) payroll taxes of 15.3%. What's that? No state comes anywhere close to that?
Not a wash by a long shot.
15.3% is the FICA factor (assuming not above income cap), split evenly between employer and employee. Add on top how the state, municipalities, school districts extract their payroll/income taxes, which can be 100% on employee, 50% on employee, 0% on employee, or none of the above. In Texas, it is 100% on employer. In Ohio, the split mixes and matches with some of the entities charging the employer and employee. Ergo, it's not always a 50/50 split between employee and employer.
In the end, it is a wash whether applied to employer or employee. FICA extracts the same amount, and other entities will extract their amount. Reduction by the employee or employer via credits are typically not feasible or are strongly engineered against.
Thanks, and this is my last comment on this thread. Have a good day.