When did I "clearly defines a 'code of conduct' as a rigid set of rules that should always apply" ? As qqq pointed out in his or her first comment on my statement, I make the case for infrequency, not prohibition. In my next reply, I affirm that. How did I change my mind?

How did I come off as having a 'sense of superiority'? Please inform me so that I can avoid doing the same in the future.

I always get principle and principal confused, thanks for clarifying.