Re:Over half of Covid hospitalisations tested positive after...
by briefcomment on Tuesday July 27, 2021 @06:35PM
(#27978485)
Is there any proposed logic behind the difference in thresholds between the two groups? It seems designed to do just one thing - overestimate cases in the unvaccinated, and underestimate cases in the vaccinated. What is the actual rationale the CDC provides?
Re:Over half of Covid hospitalisations tested positive after...
by rsfern on Tuesday July 27, 2021 @07:38PM
(#27978894)
Vaccinated people have a strong immune response to the virus, and presumably it would take a much higher viral load to make them clinically ill.
To me this seems like a much more plausible explanation for dual thresholds than some kind of conspiracy to inflate numbers for political reasons. Immunology is not my field though.
Note that the US CDC is using two different CT values: a higher one for unvaccinated and a lower one for vaccinated. That doesn't make any sense until you start thinking Hobbsian/Hegalian/Machiavellian.
If I was wanting to exploit the situation, this is exactly what I'd do. Instead I have ethics however.