In my country most salaries are mandated with trade-union agreements, even variable compensations. Only very specific and niche cases behave outside that framework.

If any trade union or person believed that there was a real pay gap in any company, they could sue and win if true. Even way before current law.

With the new law, it's even easier, as they get access to all the microdata basically.

But nothing lands on courts yet.

If people were rational, bigotry wouldn't exist in the first place.

By this logic, racial and gender pay gaps should never have existed. Why didn't any visionary CEO in America hire blacks instead of whites in 1950 and save 50% on labor?

Because they were also kept out of the schools that would give them the qualifications to work those jobs. No cost savings if your engineer or accountant was never trained. So companies hired them for the menial jobs which paid less universally.

No black engineers or accountants in 1950? Whats the pay gap between you and a knowledgeable employee?

Not that there were zero, just that they were rare due to entry barriers. If you have evidence to the contrary I would love to see it rather than listen to your pathetic attempt at a clever put down.

You're the one who said there were none.

Now you admit there were, my original question remains. Why didn't any CEO hire them at a white firm at half pay and make a bundle?

I don't know, but I don't find it hard to furnish ideas. Colleges used to try to ensure they didn't produce more professionally qualified graduates than there were entry-level positions for. Perhaps colleges only graduated fewer black students than there were openings in black-owned enterprises?

Maybe you can learn reading comprehension. In the context of a company hiring only minorities in professional roles there were effectively none.

Again, how about some evidence to the contrary?