How Bell’s Theorem proved ‘spooky action at a distance’ is real

Re:How Bell’s Theorem proved ‘spooky action at a distance’ i... by tsimionescu on Tuesday July 20, 2021 @02:40PM (#27897515)

I'm not sure what you mean by classical wave functions - I've only seen the term 'wave function' used for quantum mechanics. Are you referring to classical wave equations? I'm not sure how the concept of entanglement is supposed to apply to classical waves though.

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Re:How Bell’s Theorem proved ‘spooky action at a distance’ i... by tylerhou on Tuesday July 20, 2021 @04:50PM (#27899135)

I'm saying that you can represent probability distributions of classical objects as a "wave function."

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Re:How Bell’s Theorem proved ‘spooky action at a distance’ i... by lisper on Tuesday July 20, 2021 @09:38PM (#27901340)

No, you can't, at least not one that behaves like the quantum wave function does. Classical probabilities are real numbers between zero and one. The wave function takes on complex values, which allows you to add two wave-function values with non-zero magnitude and get zero, i.e. produce destructive interference. Classical probabilities can't do that.

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Re:How Bell’s Theorem proved ‘spooky action at a distance’ i... by tsimionescu on Wednesday July 21, 2021 @03:39AM (#27903432)

So basically a box with two colored balls could be described by a "classical wave functions" (a real-valued wave function), where the values of the two balls are entangled, and then yes, your experiment would exactly describe what happens.

But this sheds no light on quantum wave functions and quantum entanglement.

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