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Re:E-Prime – English without the verb “to be” by reggieband on Wednesday May 26, 2021 @03:16PM (#27294831)
I recall an incident while I studied Spanish. An older woman in my class was nearly in tears of frustration as she angrily demanded of our teacher why they use "estar" to denote locations. For example "París está en Francia". Given the naive classification of estar as temporary it seems counter-intuitive to suggest Paris is temporarily in France.

There are a few other ambiguous ser/estar situations we were taught, exceptions to the permanent/temporary distinction that I can't recall. But the near break-down this woman had about Paris was quite memorable.

Re:E-Prime – English without the verb “to be” by mlmonge on Wednesday May 26, 2021 @06:05PM (#27296694)
It's made sense to me that "estar" is used as a means to "localize" the subject to a particular space/time. Thus the non-permanence (i.e. "non-global") meaning of the word.