>If you divide it and invest over a period of time, you are (1) letting the un-invested money be idle
No, that's not always true. For example. When you earn $5000 in excess income per year you can decide to invest it monthly. That's dollar cost averaging and you didn't let your uninvested money sit idle.
You can save up $5000 until the end of the year and then invest it. That's a lumpsum and you did let your uninvested money sit idle.
Lump Sum vs DCA comparisons are usually made in the context that you have your lump sum now. Not that you're accumulating a lump sum and trying to time the market for when to invest it. The page is titled "How to invest a lump sum of money" after all.
> Suppose you received a windfall. Someone gave you a gift or you inherited a lot of money. Maybe you hit the lottery jackpot or got a huge bonus.
> Here's the question you face: Should you invest it all right away or in smaller increments over time, a strategy known as dollar-cost averaging?
The Wikipedia article [0] has quite a few links to studies showing this is worse than lump sum.
I’m trying to think of any scenarios where this would be smart, but they all seem to assume market knowledge and just adjusting a lump sum payment. Even if you “knew” it was a down market and didn’t know when it would pick up it is bad because you would miss the biggest upswings at the bottom of the bear.
I think this is just one of those platitudes that retail advisors give people because it sounds good, but actually isn’t.
I should have been clear, I'm not talking about Bitcoin at all. Just traditional index investing.
https://investor.vanguard.com/investing/online-trading/inves...
Time in the market > Timing the market, and all that jazz.
This is a common fallacy. That is not actually the tradeoff you are making, in fact you are taking a hit to the mean value, and also greatly increasing the chances of being on the wrong side of the average[1]. Dollar cost averaging increases variance and decreases the expected return in proportion to your averaging period. You earn less and have a much lower floor for almost no increase in the ceiling.
There are nice visualizations here: https://ofdollarsanddata.com/lump-sum-investing/
[1] at least according to history. Who knows what the future holds.
Maybe you could compare and choose an option with less variability or standard deviation even though the mean return is worse. But these studies don’t compare the size of average losses and gains. I expect that the variance is also better for lump sum.
Agreed that you shouldn't try to time the market, but it is of course possible that you invest that lump sump at a high, and then see a significant drop soon after. Sure, over time that drop will almost certainly rectify itself, but psychologically you might feel better about buying in over a longer period of time.
Living with slightly lower long-term returns in exchange for peace of mind is a perfectly valid trade off that people can choose to make.
This is because there are always two downsides, the risk of investing just before a huge crash, but also the risk of holding out while a boom passes you by. People always psychologically overweight the former due to loss aversion, but the latter is more pernicious.
One of those risks a 70% loss the other one merely risks unrealized gains.
This is an orthogonal issue. If you DCA for 12 months and then a crash immediately occurs, you suffer the exact same fate (you are worse off than someone who had 12 months of investment returns prior to the crash). Does this mean you should increase DCA horizon to 24 months? The only way your framing makes sense is if you have prior knowledge that a crash will occur during the DCA period.
The optimal strategy can't possibly be (b), because it would have the bizarre implication that two investors who have exactly the same preferences and who currently have the same amount of wealth would want to allocate their investments differently depending on how far in the past they started investing.
Edit: I'm quite sleepy right now, but I think the way the mathematics works out is that the risk arising from an asset is a convex function of the amount allocated to it. So by Jensen's inequality it's less risky to invest 50/50 in cash and stocks for two years than to invest for one year in cash and one year in stocks, for the same reward.
Above some point more dollars are less valuable to you, below some point they are much more valuable to you.
If your investment objectives will be very likely satisfied from the returns of the DCA and the lump sump has a higher probability of failure -- why wouldn't you DCA even though it has lower expected returns?
For this to be true, you must be a successful market timer. Whatever your DCA period is, at the end of the period, you are fully invested -- a crash at that point in time would hurt you just as much as a crash would hurt a 100% equities from day 1 investor. DCA'ing is a bet that a crash will occur sometime before you are fully in. In every other scenario, the DCA is strictly worse. If you don't happen to know the timing of future crashes, it's better to put your money to work now than later, come what may.
To account for non-linearly increasing dollar utility, it's better to choose a less volatile asset allocation, not to delay your investment period.
> In every other scenario, the DCA is strictly worse.
Yes. And so what? It will always be the case that a lower variance approach will be better in the cases where the higher variance approach did poorly and worse otherwise.
> it's better to choose a less volatile asset allocation
These are not mutually exclusive. One can lump sum all into the lowest risk allocation and then risk on over time.
It doesn't help that right now there is not much freedom in asset allocation at all. Your choices are pretty limited to higher risk things and things with a negative real yield.
Not sure what you're using as the measure of variance, but Morningstar found DCA has higher variance in IRR: https://www.morningstar.com.au/learn/article/the-dollar-cost...
> These are not mutually exclusive. One can lump sum all into the lowest risk allocation and then risk on over time
I never said they were mutually exclusive, just that it is suboptimal.
I’m aware of the macroeconomic policies that coincide with that observation, but people will lean on those papers
In higher volatile assets or periods, dollar cost averaging is the better move, so people that come from more volatile markets are correct to lean on that