In other words, this works simply because stocks can be sold and borrowed, and they don't carry provenance with them. To stop this, you'd have to do the equivalent of DRMing books and revoking the first sale doctrine. Which I imagine would turn shorting into a much more complex market mechanic than it is today.
(Disclaimer: the extent of my expertise on stock markets is me knowing how to spell "stonks".)
Imagine you short 50% of the outstanding shares.
Now there are 50% more long positions than outstanding shares.
It's not substantially different from having 100% or 150% more long positions than outstanding shares.
If the total long or short positions exceed the underlying economics by a lot, you create all sort of weird incentives for manipulation, as can be seen in the CDS market sometimes.
I fully agree that derivatives can create all sort of problems in many cases, including when the nominal amount of the positions is much higher than the actual amount of the underlying.
Not sure it would be worth it, I think historically excessive shorting has rarely been a problem, except for a few colourful episodes like these.
It sounds simple, but the details make it hard.
I borrow it.
I sell it to Tom.
I borrow the share from Tom's broker.
Tom's broker and I both have no idea it's "the" "same" share I borrowed.
Boom, 200% short interest on "that" share.
The hedge funds are the speculators in this case. They're playing a dangerous game where you can short more stock than what actually exists. Why this is allowed? Who the fuck knows.