If property doesn't have rights, how can the 8th ammendment protect it, yet it doesn't have protections under the others? The 4th explicitly requires the seizure of property to be based on at least probable cause. Just seems like a massive contradiction.

I guess someone needs to file a civil rights suit because they were deprived of that property under the color of law. The 4th ammendment is quite clear that one is to be secure in their affects. Doesn't matter if the case was filed against the property, the effect was felt by the person.