You do realise that just a few thousand British controlled the entire nation of India for 100s of years, right?

Presenting you some data on how this works: https://paa2015.princeton.edu/papers/153481

Just consider the Indian judiciary. The vast majority of judges are brahmins when they constitute just 5% of the population of the country.

https://www.buzzfeed.com/ravikiranshinde/one-too-many-mishra...

As for the undertrials and those in prison, the vast majority are from lower castes. https://www.newsclick.in/how-caste-plays-out-criminal-justic...

It is impossible to have a fact based discussion with you. Your arguments so riddled with logical fallacies that it would take me hours to tease everything out with definitions and explanations. I find myself facing a poverty of time currently and in the near future to be able to engage you further. Thanks for the discussion so far. Have a nice day.

Aristocracy is France was around 10%. There are plenty of upper caste Indians (around 18% to 30% total depending on how you count it) who benefit from this societal structure.

Ok. The original comment said Brahmins are oppressing the Dalits.

What has this got to do with the French? ‘Upper classes’ are not all aristocracy. I think you are confused.

I’m not confused, thanks. I’m saying a small population can easily oppress a larger population, especially with consent and cooperation from other populations.

Numbers from here or wikipedia https://www.statista.com/statistics/1001016/india-population...

Entirely irrelevant here.

Unless you are stating that Dalits are a larger number than a smaller population of Brahmins.

And that the latter is oppressing the former?

In which case: source?

Thanks.

You’re just saying random things in an aggressive manner without making any sense.

No. I am merely asking for the source of pretty specific numbers.

Once again: source?

So what is it - 6% or 30%? And where's the source?