Re:Analysing the alleged Minneapolis police department “hack”
by newen on Monday June 01, 2020 @07:13PM
(#23385197)
So you look at arrests of violent crime and decide that is the only way to asses racial/gender disparities in excessive use of police force?? Why is that a correct way? What about stops by police, arrests of non-violent crime, murders by police?
Re:Analysing the alleged Minneapolis police department “hack”
by malandrew on Thursday June 04, 2020 @03:21AM
(#23413637)
One reason is because the burden to manufacture crimes is far higher. Every violent crime necessarily has a victim and if the victim survived the encounter they can identify affirmatively the characteristics of their assailant.
The problem with non-violent crimes is that they could be tainted by biases since there isn't always as concrete/reliable an eyewitness.
Someone attacks me and it's a lot easier to trust what I report. I see someone steal something at a distance, and my eyewitness account is less trustworthy.
Is there a problem with excessive use of police force? Definitely. Is it disproportionate with regards to race or gender relative to representation based on a per 10,000 arrests per violent crime basis? No.