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Re:Can 1/3 and 1/3 = 2/6? It seemed so by billfruit on Tuesday May 26, 2020 @10:53AM (#23311905)
Another is sin^2(x) meaning (sin(x))^2, but by a more intuitive reading it should mean sin(sin(x)).

I don't know what exactly is being gained by the usual notation: surely better clarity should be preferred over the time/effort saved in writing the extra pair of paranthesis, and I would prefer it be written as (sin(x))^2 always.

Thing is mathematics, and mathematical pedagogy seems hardly concerned with such rampant notation confusion plaguing much of maths. Perhaps moving to some type of machine-readable notation will be better for consistency and avoiding of much notational confusion.

Re:Can 1/3 and 1/3 = 2/6? It seemed so by saagarjha on Tuesday May 26, 2020 @03:12PM (#23315258)
When actually working with trigonometric identities, using parentheses typically gets unwieldily very quickly. Same reason sin(x) often becomes sin x.
Re:Can 1/3 and 1/3 = 2/6? It seemed so by billfruit on Wednesday May 27, 2020 @11:54AM (#23325136)
Then perhaps we should drop all parens and move to prefix notation.
Re:Can 1/3 and 1/3 = 2/6? It seemed so by abdullahkhalids on Tuesday May 26, 2020 @11:37AM (#23312457)
Does f^2(x) in any scenario mean (f(x))^2? Usually the square of a function, with named arguments is written as f(x)^2. So, not clear on the confusion.
Re:Can 1/3 and 1/3 = 2/6? It seemed so by bonoboTP on Tuesday May 26, 2020 @12:16PM (#23312999)
Yes, in trigonometry sin^2(x) is commonly written to mean (sin(x))^2