Re:America’s First Amphetamine Epidemic 1929–1971 (2008)
by desks_dos on Saturday December 14, 2019 @11:39AM
(#21790343)
Does this amphetamine use constitute abuse? Drug abuse is typically defined as use that creates negative effects to the person's social and/or personal health. It seems to me his drug use gave him the ability to work at a high level and allowed him to derive self-worth from that work. He was also able to discontinue the drug use at will. Even if there were some negative health side-effects, I wonder if abuse should be the term used here.
Re:America’s First Amphetamine Epidemic 1929–1971 (2008)
by LocalH on Sunday December 15, 2019 @11:53AM
(#21797159)
"Use" vs "abuse" is generally an ideological choice, not really related to the actual use of a substance. If someone uses the word "abuse" in situations like that, it's clear that they are a prohibitionist, to whom all use is abuse.
Of course, egregious examples can very well be classed as abuse. But if someone classifies examples like the one you reference as abuse, then they're a prohibitionist, plain and simple.
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