Can anyone comment on the validity or invalidity of that argument?
~90% of people who are prescribed opioids never develop addiction problems. [1]
Despite being in the midst of an opioid crisis with skyrocketing mortality rates, the mortality rate from prescription opiates has been ~stable for the last ~15 years. [2]
[0] https://www.samhsa.gov/data/sites/default/files/NSDUH-DetTab...
[1] https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/25785523
[2] http://www.ncsl.org/portals/1/documents/health/APeeples0118_...
Something like 6% of american adults abuse alcohol -- and alcohol is less "addictive" than an opioid for most of the population.
I knew of people buying oxycodone on the street a decade ago, and it was clear their dealers had a supply of name brand pills beyond "pills stolen from the medicine cabinet".
I seem to recall earlier stories linking the rise of prescription opiates in general to a resurgence in what had been declining heroin abuse, but I'm not finding anything.
[0] https://www.latimes.com/local/lanow/la-me-oxycontin-20170109...
Availability of illicitly manufactured synthetic opioids (e.g., fentanyl) that traditionally were prescription medications has increased. This has blurred the lines between prescription and illicit opioid-involved deaths. In one study in 27 states, Gladden et al. examined data on drug products obtained by law enforcement that tested positive for fentanyl (fentanyl submissions) and deaths involving synthetic opioids other than methadone (referred to as synthetic opioids). From 2013 to 2014, fentanyl submissions increased by 426%. The increases were strongly correlated with increases in synthetic opioid deaths but not with pharmaceutical fentanyl prescribing rates, suggesting that the increases were largely due to IMF. In a recent report, fentanyl was detected in at least half of the opioid overdose deaths from July to December 2016 in 7 of the 10 states examined. [0]
0. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5844400/
The CDC describes overdose deaths as occurring in three waves [1]. Normal pharmaceuticals are involved in wave one, starting in the 1990s. Clearly pharma co.s aren’t involved in wave two, heroin. What’s their culpability for wave three, the synthetic opiods starting in 2013? NIH above says not majorly. If pharma cos aren’t the source of fentanyl and wave two’s heroin, why are they the media focus point?
1. https://www.cdc.gov/drugoverdose/epidemic/index.html