Re:The Riemann Hypothesis
by teekert on Monday September 09, 2019 @02:37AM
(#20915711)
It doesn't, but isn't that, in this case, only because you math gals and guys simply define x^0 to be one? There is no logical reason from a geometry standpoint indeed but you needed a definition.
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Re:The Riemann Hypothesis
by Double_Cast on Monday September 09, 2019 @04:33AM
(#20916237)
(x^0) = (1) makes sense because lim{y -> 0} (x^y) = (1).
E.g. (10^0.001) = (1.00230524...)