I mean most, that's about as specific as it makes sense to be since the definition keeps morphing to hook an ever growing part of the population into the profit-machine.

When I said that the sufferers of mental illness objectively do suffer, you did not seem to have a problem and you said that society is the primary cause. (And explicitly not a hereditary disposition, as is generally believed to be a factor.)

Now you seem to be suggesting the conditions are expanding, as if invented, to serve a profit machine.

This all suggests to me that your real opinion is that the illnesses don't exist.

All I ever said was that most mental illness is a product of society. Anything beyond that is a product of your imagination. If you're going to actively avoid truth by taking every chance to derail the discussion, why even bother?

But you seem to be morphing the definition in order to sculpt your narrative, which is why I'm asking you to nail it down.