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Re:Combining finances by bdowling on Saturday May 25, 2019 @01:28AM (#20007292)
The general rule is that property owned prior to a marriage remains the separate property of that owner. So the answer to your first question is generally A.

The answers to your other questions will depend on whether the couple is in a marital property state or a community property state, because the default rules regarding marital income are different.

Re:Combining finances by mtrimpe on Saturday May 25, 2019 @03:16AM (#20007570)
Yet if you take that view then by sharing in the mortgage payments partner A may have become landlord to partner B and renter’s protection might apply to partner B.
Re:Combining finances by jfk13 on Saturday May 25, 2019 @06:10AM (#20008118)
> The general rule is that property owned prior to a marriage remains the separate property of that owner.

Well, that's one possible rule; it's not the only/universal one.

(As a traditional ceremony might say, "with all my worldly goods I thee endow". That doesn't sound much like maintaining separate property...)

Re:Combining finances by theelous3 on Saturday May 25, 2019 @06:22AM (#20008157)
Traditional ceremonies aren't contracts.
Re:Combining finances by lukasm on Saturday May 25, 2019 @02:35AM (#20007463)
Not sure why you've been downvoted. This is how it works in my country and I think this makes sense.
Re:Combining finances by roel_v on Saturday May 25, 2019 @02:51AM (#20007502)
Because the topic is not "what's the default legal situation".
Re:Combining finances by infinite8s on Saturday May 25, 2019 @10:13AM (#20009165)
But if you don't discuss beforehand and come to an agreement, the default legal situation applies.
Re:Combining finances by cheerlessbog on Saturday May 25, 2019 @05:52AM (#20008057)
If three was a mortgage on the property the payments on the principal are presumably community property, and the appreciation of that post of the value.