I'll admit that my formulation of the fourth statement was a bit ambiguous, but you missed the point. For what its worth, I agree it should be rephrased, if only to avoid such confusion.

If you attempt to read it with the (perhaps generous) assumption that I'm not proposing a tautology, than you might see what I mean.

A Keynesian ideology provides justification for the use of state power that differing economic ideologies do not. It would seem rational (warning: assumption of self-interest) that, holding everything else constant, politicians have a tendency to endorse Keynesian thought.