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Re:Why Doesn’t Ancient Fiction Talk About Feelings? (2017) by Latteland on Saturday October 20, 2018 @02:16AM (#18262011)
Thanks for sharing that link. Jaynes' idea is interesting but I really think we're no different than people in the past. I don't see how this change to bicameral minds could have happened.
Re:Why Doesn’t Ancient Fiction Talk About Feelings? (2017) by spc476 on Saturday October 20, 2018 @02:50AM (#18262121)
I'm currently reading the book [1] and while I haven't finished it yet, the thrust (if I'm understanding it correctly) seems to be that it was the increasing complexity of civilization (as populations rose in an area) that lead the brain to reform connections to be less bicameral in nature.

There are evolutionary changes in humans that are known to us. For instance, people of European descent can still digest milk into adulthood; the father you get from Europe, the greater that lactose intolerance grows. So it could also be for bicameralism.

I too, am skeptical about how this came across the world, but he does mention in passing that some of the Pre-Columbian cultures of North America could have still been bicameral as late as the early 1500s. It's really an interesting read.

[1] I found a copy in a used book store and the price was right.

Re:Why Doesn’t Ancient Fiction Talk About Feelings? (2017) by rgrieselhuber on Saturday October 20, 2018 @02:47AM (#18262114)
I see it not as a hardware change but a software change. That doesn’t prove Jaynes’ theory, of course. There is another book called Metaprogramming and the Human Biocomputer.

Jaynes’ theory is interesting to me because it reminds me of disassociative disorders.

Re:Why Doesn’t Ancient Fiction Talk About Feelings? (2017) by tw1010 on Saturday October 20, 2018 @05:48AM (#18262551)
I don't think you can evaluate if that's true by reading books by people in the past. There are a lot of different states of mind which are consistent with the same output. I mean, just think about how many people with wildly different states of mind (schizophrenic, autism) today who can write books which are indistinguishable from books by "normal" people.
Re:Why Doesn’t Ancient Fiction Talk About Feelings? (2017) by akvadrako on Saturday October 20, 2018 @06:16AM (#18262621)
I think you can assume most people write characters that think somewhat like they do.

And is it true that schizophrenic and autistic authors do write the same?

Re:Why Doesn’t Ancient Fiction Talk About Feelings? (2017) by tw1010 on Saturday October 20, 2018 @02:42PM (#18264761)
There are a lot of people who don't think verbally, who nevertheless manage (because they have to, because that's basically the only channel we have) to share their ideas using language (in an indistinguishable way from people who do think with words). Some people think with sounds, some are primarily visual thinkers, some are informed by their emotions. I don't think it's infeasible that there are other ways of thinking (or other states of consciousness), which nevertheless have the capacity to produce the same type of output, in terms of writing, as what we with our consciousness produce today.
Re:Why Doesn’t Ancient Fiction Talk About Feelings? (2017) by akvadrako on Saturday October 20, 2018 @06:13AM (#18262615)
Are you saying how our brains work never evolved and we think the same as primates?

That seems really far fetched.

Re:Why Doesn’t Ancient Fiction Talk About Feelings? (2017) by fjsolwmv on Saturday October 20, 2018 @12:58PM (#18264146)
It's not so far fetched to say that mammal brains are all pretty similar and have a similar "consciousness" that "lower" mammals may be mediated/obscured by inability to use complex language or some other constraints
Re:Why Doesn’t Ancient Fiction Talk About Feelings? (2017) by akvadrako on Saturday October 20, 2018 @01:45PM (#18264438)
The ability to use language is a core part of jayne’s theory though. That would be part of the evolution process.