There does not appear to be much data supporting the hypothesis that a significant number of people died of malnutrition (ie a famine) in the US during the Great Depression: https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/12297/how-many-p...

The millions of deaths (irrespective of the famines ultimate cause) in the USSR and especially in the Ukraine in 1932 / 1933 are well documented (2-4 million deaths estimated):

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Soviet_famine_of_1932%E2%80%...

There was also a Russian famine in 1922 where an estimated 5 million people died:

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Russian_famine_of_1921%E2%80...

There is a Wikipedia article on “hunger in the United States”, but a google search for “United States Great Depression famine” did not return any Wikipedia articles documenting a famine in the US at that time, only the above Stack Exchange discussion (which appears to reject the hypothesis).

FYI: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hunger_in_the_United_States

Without data to back up the claim of a famine killing millions in the US during the Great Depression the comparison used here is nonsense, although there may be other evidence for the point the author was attempting to support.

We are discussing economic systems. What is the point of listing selective list of famines at certain times of Russian history to the discussion about communism vs capitalism. Much worse famines occurred when the Russia was capitalistic. Famines occurred in any type of economic system. Are you implying that communist Russia was more susceptible to food shocks?

The discussion points to Soviet policy. You are invoking fallacy of the gray [1] with your comparison to the dust bowl

[1] https://wiki.lesswrong.com/wiki/Fallacy_of_gray