No, I'm pretty sure that is incorrect. The EU believes that an IP itself is personally identifiable and it must be secured and processed like any PII [1]. I think you could make a case that the IP being sent to an ad network is an "acceptable" business practice for which you don't need consent, but IANAL.

[1] https://www.enterprisetimes.co.uk/2016/10/20/ecj-rules-ip-ad...