Re:Richest 1% on target to own two-thirds of all wealth by 2030
by ericd on Saturday April 07, 2018 @06:51PM
(#16783495)
Owning part of a fund is equivalent to owning part of their holdings, which includes owning the means of production owned by those companies in which they hold shares. I don't agree that it's semantics to point out that the divide between "owners" and "workers" is not at all clean in the US.
Do those workers have say in their economic situation? Can they change the direction of their company without losing their jobs? Do they have economic and political power?
Stop equating stock ownership in a fund as if it is "owning the means of production." You know that it is a mere extension of the word "own" and it probably doesn't refer to what Marx talked about, so stop trying to twist definitions and thinking it counts as sincere argument.