From 1821 until adoption of the 14th amendment in 1868 New York required black men to own property to vote but did not require white men to own property to vote. There are many other examples of discrimination that could be found, but your entire position is frankly too absurd to bother arguing against any further. The idea that there were not at least two centuries of time in which there was some form of race based slavery or discrimination in New York is preposterous.

I am not arguing that there was zero racial discrimination, we still have forms of racial discrimination built into the law today.

However, at the time women where not allowed to vote at all. Thus it was not pure racial discrimination.

Just for perspective North Carolina and New York did allow freed blacks to vote in 1790. And in 1860 two states still had property ownership requirements to vote I am saying deep cultural views are a more complex topic than you think.

PS: As one historian put it, economics pushed poor white farmers to abolitionism before the civil war. However, economics pushed those same farmers to discrimination after the civil war.