It's because I read that the poster's argument was: drugs are a "victimless crime" and therefore regulating drug sales is a market distortion and pointless.

My counter-argument was that there are negative externalities to many kinds of drug sales and use.

I agree that these concerns are orthogonal but I did not feel that the conclusion was supported by the argument and therefore shifted the field somewhat. I don't think the precise definitions of the terms are central to the discussion.

I do wonder if we're getting a bit caught up on regulating versus criminalization.