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Re:How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's ... by pvaldes on Friday September 29, 2017 @06:52PM (#15369939)
This analogy is repeated again and again but is a bad example. A divorce is not "a right", is an agreement regulated by law between two previously married people to put a legal end to the relationship.

The true fact is that I can't divorce from my wife without her permit and she could not divorce from me without me agreeing to sign the divorce papers. Does not match the case of one part splitting unilaterally. A better term for this case would be marital abandonment, and a even better term would be family abuse. There is not such thing like a "right to desert your family keeping the house for yourself only".

Re:How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's ... by oska on Friday September 29, 2017 @10:36PM (#15370890)
Divorce is a right and it was a right that had to be fought for.
Re:How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's ... by oh_sigh on Friday September 29, 2017 @07:20PM (#15370091)
Historically, has the federal government pumped more resources into Catalonia than it extracted from it, or the other way around?
Re:How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's ... by NetStrikeForce on Friday September 29, 2017 @08:19PM (#15370364)
There's no federal government, it's not a federation.

Historically the central government has extracted money and resources from Catalonia. Catalonia was one of the first regions in Spain to develop its industry and definitely the strongest on that: https://es.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Revolución_industrial_en_Esp...

These days it is widely accepted that the Catalan people send 16 billion per year to Spain that are never returned. That wouldn't be a problem if it wasn't because our infrastructures are underfunded and only around 35% of the budgeted investments were actually executed: http://www.elnacional.cat/es/politica/estado-ejecucion-infra...

But this is not just an economic grievance. The issue is way more complex and includes (but not restricted to) language, cultural and respect issues.

Edit: This comment is now at 0. Please argue instead of downvoting. You're breaking HN's rules.

Re:How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's ... by plafl on Friday September 29, 2017 @07:42PM (#15370205)
Maybe it's not zero-sum
Re:How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's ... by oh_sigh on Friday September 29, 2017 @08:04PM (#15370292)
Sure, it probably is. But if that is the case, the answer is even more straight forward: Separation is okay.
Re:How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's ... by toyg on Friday September 29, 2017 @07:25PM (#15370118)
> I can't divorce from my wife without her permit

What? You totally can, at least in most countries, as long as you can prove that your wife did something wrong. Can Catalunya prove that Spain did something wrong? Yeah: Franco.

Re:How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's ... by qiv on Saturday September 30, 2017 @06:07PM (#15375227)
Except the marriage (i.e. the constitution) came into place way after Franco; and the Catalans approved it with a humongous majority!
Re:How the Catalan government uses IPFS to sidestep Spain's ... by pvaldes on Friday September 29, 2017 @08:20PM (#15370366)
There are some exceptions and many different divorce laws, but the example obviously should be taken in a spanish context, and not trying to suggest that Catalonia (typically represented as the wife) was cheating to its partner Spain (typically represented as man and violent abuser) so she "has the right to go". Would be against their own discourse.

http://www.vozbcn.com/figura/2009/11/20091127nou.jpg

"Shouldn't your wife be allowed to divorce from you if she wants" with an implicit (because you abused it) would be, on the other hand, an extremely rude example. I don't think that this passive-agressive possibility was even in the mind of the people posting it.