Two points on a plane are different: is one necessarily less than the other?
No. The question itself is ill-formed. You need a metric to transform the points to a form that can fit into the "less than" comparison. A common transformation would be e.g. euclidean distance - under which two different points (e.g. (2, 4) and (4, 2)) can end up being equal.
Real-life problems are multi-dimensional issues with very complex metrics.
"Note, I’m not saying that all men differ from all women in the following ways or that these differences are “just.” I’m simply stating that the distribution of preferences and abilities of men and women differ in part due to biological causes and that these differences may explain why we don’t see equal representation of women in tech and leadership. Many of these differences are small and there’s significant overlap between men and women, so you can’t say anything about an individual given these population level distributions."
If someone says "I explicitly don't claim X", you can't then go and say they're claiming X.
> Note, I’m not saying that all men differ from all women in the following ways...
He does argue that the population means for various traits are different. If two means are different, one is lesser than the other.
That's what you are asserting, not the author. Isn't that a textbook definition of a straw man?
Yes. This is a consequence of the law of trichotomy.