Re:Feynman on Fermat's Last Theorem (2016)
by alimw on Sunday August 06, 2017 @12:54PM
(#14942078)
I haven't read it closely, but it looks to me as if the calculation estimates the expected number of counterexamples rather than the "measure" of them (however you've chosen to define that).
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Re:Feynman on Fermat's Last Theorem (2016)
by mathemancer on Sunday August 06, 2017 @02:29PM
(#14942647)
The set of possible counterexamples has Lebesgue measure zero.