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Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by jernfrost on Friday March 24, 2017 @09:28PM (#13953562)
From what I understand, the Chinese had often recorded many facts about nature and mathematics very early and accurately. However they never really created much laws. Laws of nature was a western invention. E.g. they observed accurately planetary movements, but never attempted to formulate the laws governing those movements. That sort of thinking was crucial for scientific thinking.
Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by sn41 on Friday March 24, 2017 @11:06PM (#13953887)
Maybe true. The emphasis was on calculations. For example, there was a heliocentric model in India [1], which was too complicated to come from a "simple" mechanical model, but was quite accurate.

But I think we should not be too eager to jump on to "science is only from laws" bandwagon. Courses on the philosophy of science take this dogma to absurd extremes, ignoring how current science is often done. There is enough science done today where the laws are only vague, but we do predict useful stuff from simulations - climate models and earthquake modelling being the most prominent - despite not having "simple" laws behind them. As Freeman Dyson often observes, physicists still don't have a good explanation of why a bicycle doesn't topple when in motion - but we've been riding them for a century and half [2].

I think trial-and-error, and simulations also count as sophisticated science.

It's more than a tad racist to insist that Egyptians, Babylonians, Chinese and Indians, as well as medieval Arab scientists were all child races incapable of truly knowing what they were doing.

[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nilakantha_Somayaji

[2] https://www.wired.com/1998/02/dyson/

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by marmaduke on Saturday March 25, 2017 @04:57AM (#13954697)
Feyerabend's Against Method goes further: examining crucial discoveries in science reveals no pattern which could be called a scientific method. Everyone sort of freestyles it or does what works.

I think modern western science discounts other sources of knowledge, because it is not just a platonic ideal but a sort of politics of the scientists, which they need to justify the choices they make.

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by vixen99 on Saturday March 25, 2017 @12:00PM (#13956223)
This is waffle. 'Western Science' is an abstraction. The 'official position of Western Science' is not an accredited publication as far as I know. More to the point, if you have criticisms of individual scientists (the ones who contribute to science [ i.e., people all nationalities and places on Earth) ] who 'discount other sources of knowledge' please be specific. They may or may not have a point. We can't know unless you specify.
Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by marmaduke on Saturday March 25, 2017 @05:03PM (#13957555)
Too much troll, didn't read
Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by jernfrost on Saturday March 25, 2017 @03:59PM (#13957275)
Even simulations are based on formulating rules or laws in which the different parts operate within. I think you are bringing up an awful lot of straw-men to counter my point. I never suggested one should be narrow minded about it, simply that by merely having observations, we don't really have science. IMHO science relies on having theories which we can formulate rules or laws from which makes it possible to make predictions. What else besides explaining things and making predictions is the point of science?

"It's more than a tad racist to insist that Egyptians, Babylonians, Chinese and Indians, as well as medieval Arab scientists were all child races incapable of truly knowing what they were doing."

What on earth are you rambling about? Were have I made even the faintest suggestion that that is the case? Different civilizations has invented different things and advanced at different levels and different times through our history. Pointing this out isn't racist with respect to other people. Is is racist against Europeans to suggest that Indians invented the zero and our numerals. Am I then suggesting that those stupid childish Europeans couldn't come up with even basic stuff like numerals themselves?

Is it racist to point out that native Americans didn't invent quantum mechanics?

Anyway I don't believe there is such a thing as human races, but there definitely are differences between various cultures and civilizations.

It is an undeniable fact that western civilization was the main driver of the scientific revolution. Should it then not be interesting to understand why it was that the west advanced so much further than the others. One of the key observations which helps understand this is the western preoccupation with formulating laws of nature early on.

How else can you explain how a relatively poor and backwater region of the world could end up eclipsing, far richer, more populous and advance regions such as the Arab world, China, India?

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by tripzilch on Thursday March 30, 2017 @11:05AM (#13995991)
> native Americans didn't invent quantum mechanics

Maya's totally knew about quantum, how else could they have had novelty theory and predicted the 2012 timewave zero collapse? It's not like they had access to the I-Ching[0] to be able to model it like Terrence McKenna did.

... on that note, a bit more serious; this is as good an opportunity to randomly ask as any; can anyone explain to me (as far as pseudo-science goes, going along with all of the assumptions) what the basic reasoning is in Timewave Zero, how they got from the King Wen sequence (which is a certain permutation of the 64 I-Ching hexagrams, but afaik they just use it as a particular 64-element permutation compared to the original order, without taking into further account the symbology of the invididual hexagrams), and turned it into that fractal line graph they call the Timewave? There is an article on deoxy.org that appears to go into technical detail but when I read it and tried to reproduce, it doesn't really say how that step is done. OTOH apparently there's software (screenshots) that plot this graph, so there must be some kind of deterministic algorithm, but I haven't been able to find any docs about it.

[0] ... OR DID THEY??

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by proteinbased on Saturday March 25, 2017 @07:32AM (#13955098)
Regarding bicycles, I feel compelled to share one of my favourite articles on wikipedia. [1] Still, I think the point you made is valid.

[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bicycle_and_motorcycle_dynamic...

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by agumonkey on Sunday March 26, 2017 @02:03AM (#13959459)
Pretty neat. There's also a TED talk about balance which was pretty amazing.

ps: I wonder if there's a skateboard dynamics.

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by tiatia on Saturday March 25, 2017 @02:08AM (#13954326)
"medieval Arab scientists"

Ibn_al-Haytham was one of the inventors of the "scientific method". https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ibn_al-Haytham

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by microcolonel on Saturday March 25, 2017 @11:03AM (#13955990)
At least as far as is quoted on that Wikipedia article, he gives a description of basic rigor, not the scientific method.

https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/5/5c/The_Scie...

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by ciphix on Saturday March 25, 2017 @02:02AM (#13954309)
I totally uphold your idea. One more case, machine learning, especially deep learning, which lacks strict mathematical model and theoretical explanation, actually works pretty well on reality problems in fact. Maybe, it takes years for theorists to build a theoretical framework to explain, but it does not hinder us to exploit the technique.
Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by Confusion on Sunday March 26, 2017 @09:06AM (#13960575)
You're spreading antiscientific misinformation with your claim that Freeman Dyson asserts that we don't have a good explanation for why bicycles don't topple. The linked article doesn't support that claim.

What Dyson says is that it's hard to design a technological artifact, like a bycicle, from scratch, using theory only. We know perfectly how and why it works, but it's very hard to design something the behavior of which is actually governed cleanly by the fundamental explanatory principles in predictable ways. That doesn't make the principles of the explanation wrong: it's recognizing that reality is incredibly messy. It's about how hard technology is, not about science.

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by pjmlp on Saturday March 25, 2017 @08:04AM (#13955198)
Which is why it is so important that written knowledge survives civilizations, so that future generations can learn from the past.

With our current focus on digital media and "cloud", there won't be anything left in 2100 years for people to have a blick of what we are doing.

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by _Codemonkeyism on Saturday March 25, 2017 @04:17AM (#13954599)
Feynman can counter this much better than I can,

"Feynman on pseudo science" https://vimeo.com/118188988

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by sn41 on Saturday March 25, 2017 @07:16AM (#13955044)
Ancient science is not the same as pseudoscience.

The problem with a lot of the ancient sources is the lack of proofs. What I am arguing is that lack of proofs in ancient mathematical texts doesn't mean that it is all bunkum, and the authors did not know what they were talking about.

I am not talking cultural relativism or "social science is a science" relativism.

Again, another example: Euler is the father of modern analysis, through his "Analysis of the Infinite" [1]. None of his proofs are rigorous according to modern standards. Do you think Feynman would've called Euler a fool?

[1] http://www.maa.org/press/periodicals/convergence/mathematica...

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by _Codemonkeyism on Sunday March 26, 2017 @03:24AM (#13959645)
"Ancient science is not the same as pseudoscience."

Ancient science is science. Ancient pseudo science is ancient pseudo science.

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by red75prime on Saturday March 25, 2017 @08:33PM (#13958295)
Why bring racism to every comparison. They obviously weren't good at the kind of mathematics/science that leads to technological progress. So what?
Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by gp7 on Saturday March 25, 2017 @01:51AM (#13954288)
I think you're being a little unfair to philosophy of science here, bearing in mind how poorly 'Leviathan and the air-pump' was received by actual scientists.
Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by nurettin on Sunday March 26, 2017 @05:44AM (#13959950)
I didn't know "earthquake modeling" was a thing.
Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by ue_ on Friday March 24, 2017 @10:44PM (#13953818)
This is an interesting idea, even if it does play into the "exotic Oriental thinking" meme. I've seen this line of thinking usually attached with rubbish like "The Westerner wants to control the world, the Eastener only wants to explain it."

However I think that first making observations and then the crucial step of extrapolating and making predictions based on those is as good as any formally named 'law'.

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by jernfrost on Saturday March 25, 2017 @04:53PM (#13957515)
Reading up on Copernicus, Kepler and astronomy gives a good idea I think about what I am getting at.

Extrapolation isn't that easy to do with e.g. astronomy. Orbits don't go in straight predictable lines. They are ellipses where the speed will vary depending on where you are in the orbit. Kepler found that the are covered per time unit was constant, thus implying that when the orbits were closer to the sun they would speed up.

I guess you could say extrapolation was what Kepler tried to do but it took him a lot of work to figure it out. The Chinese while very advance in many respect did not try doing that. What I've read is that they did not have the Judeo-Christian belief that the mind of God could be learned. The laws governing the motions of the heavens was assume inscrutable to the human mind.

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by MichaelMoser123 on Saturday March 25, 2017 @11:12PM (#13958891)
Proofs were not always of the same rigor - what was once considered a proof may not be so by modern standards.

Now what this book shows is that 2100 years ago some level of proof was also a requirement in Chinese mathematics; this makes classical Greek/western thought look not quite as unique as it is portrayed.

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by why-el on Saturday March 25, 2017 @11:43AM (#13956148)
You might be interested in (perhaps already know) of this book, which develops your idea in some detail: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Beginning_of_Infinity
Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by manmal on Saturday March 25, 2017 @07:35AM (#13955112)
Yes, induction is what makes our progress possible.
[dead]
Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by jernfrost on Saturday March 25, 2017 @04:42PM (#13957480)
Pointing out that western civilization did something isn't the same as claiming only people of western decent is capable of doing something.

Christopher Columbus, was a westerner and went to America. That is just stating a fact of something that happened. That doesn't imply that if Christopher Columbus had black skin it would have been an impossible feat for him to accomplish. Isaac Newton would not have been prevented from inventing calculus if he had slanted eyes.

"Are you saying they were just simply looking at effects without trying to understand causes" As a matter of fact, yes. Chinese astronomer e.g. as far as I know, recorded lots of details about the movements of celestial bodies, but never attempted to device laws governing these movements. The greeks did with their Ptolemaic world view even if they were screwed up. It gave a starting point for Copernicus and Kepler to improve on.

"are you saying their thinking wasn't scientific" Yes, I am. There is no racist undertone there, as much as you like to hunt for it. This was a product of the society and traditions they lived in, not their skin color, slant of eyes or whatever you might want to make a big deal about.

"This of the people who brought us writing and mathematics" Should get your facts straight before you try to belittle me. Mathematics isn't simply numerals. You can do mathematics just fine without indian/arabic numerals. More important for science, it was the greeks who made the first formal mathematical proofs.

And who do you presume are these people who "gave" us writing? Are you assuming writing came to Europe from India, China, Egypt or something?

Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by iam-you on Saturday March 25, 2017 @08:17PM (#13958227)
I'm not presuming anything. writing came from Egypt, likely mathematics too, and where do you think the greeks get their knowledge from? Egypt. Obviously, they were creative in their own right, but that doesn't change the fact of where this stuff originated.
Re:Pythagorean Theorem proof in a 2100 year old Chinese book by jernfrost on Sunday March 26, 2017 @09:59AM (#13960803)
Show me some links, quotes, references or whatever that suggests the Egyptians did math before the Sumerians or Babylonians then. As far as I know the Greeks got knowledge both from Babylonians and Egyptians. Math like writing was developed independently many places. There is no proof to my knowledge that Egyptians was the original source of all this. When you make such an explicit claim, I think you ought to be able to back it up with something.

To my knowledge there was nothing special with Egyptian writing or mathematics. When I read about ancient math, I find much more interesting things to read about in the Babylonians and Sumerians. We still got the 60-based number system from the babylonians in our geometry and division of time.

The next stage in mathematics was clearly the Greeks, which advance ancient mathematics to a new level, with e.g. the way they did proofs etc.

Also the idea that an idea singularly originated in one place, strikes me as a rather simplistic understanding how how science and technology works. People almost never come up with an idea exclusively in a vacuum. One always builds on existing ideas in many increments and often many people derive at similar conclusions independently. If one looks at e.g. the light bulb or steam engine, it is very hard to point to one particular man or country having invented the light bulb. Too many people were involved in an infinite amount of small improvements.

It makes a lot more sense to talk about where did significant scientific progress happen. Who advanced the state of something the most. That often makes more sense than talking about who invented or discovered something.

It should not be very controversial that the advancement of modern science and mathematics has mainly been a western phenomenon. I don't mean to imply that people of western origin are superior, but that historical developments and accidents have culminated in giving a strong advantage to western nations from about 1500s onwards.

There are many good things about western culture I think one should not have to be ashamed of. The willingness for western culture to take a critical look at itself shows one of its strengths. I can think of any other civilization so ready to point out ones own weaknesses and wrongdoings as western civilization. Understanding your weakness is the key to growth and improvement.