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Re:A One-Line Proof of the Infinitude of Primes by blevinstein on Tuesday November 15, 2016 @05:03PM (#12962698)
This proof is nearly equivalent to that proof, but uses the sine function to generate a contradiction. The crucial step involves the fact that:

1 + 2 * product(p', p')

must be divisible by some prime number, where

product(p', p')

is the product of all primes you were talking about.

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