I think it is well known that there is information asymmetry in every transaction/deal/agreement involving more than one individual; saying that there is information asymmetry proves nothing. There is a highly regulated market for employees, and for employers. I didn't provide any evidence at all; I just asked if you agreed that in certain situations, it was possible for a non-compete ban to be anti-employee.

You said "My first piece of evidence" and now "I didn't provide any evidence at all". Given all the downvotes you've gotten, I recommend that you sharpen your debating tactics. You'll probably get better engagement that way.

Ah I'm sorry, I got confused thinking that we had gone back to my comment on taneq's last parent of this branch.

I attribute the downvotes to the unpopularity of non-complete clauses on HN. In addition to that, most of the libertarian and right-leaning users seem to be in North America, so I can count on less sympathy from ~4-12 GMT. It is also possible that my writing has gotten substantially worse in the last few hours, but it seems unlikely that I am being more rude or unfair than I normally am.

Mostly you're getting downvoted because you want to make legal policy based on what you suppose or imagine, rather than what you can demonstrate actually happens.

It can't be anti employee. Employers don't pay more for employees with non competes they pay less. In the case of the fictional employees you mentioned previously both employers would have faced a more competitive market for employees resulting in higher wages.

The non compete is nearly entirely valuable in that it it depresses wages. In reality its entirely likely that between firm A and firm B neither has a whole lot of special sauce non competes mostly serve to keep each other from competing for employees thus driving up wages.