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Re:The “432 Hz vs. 440 Hz” conspiracy theory by wtbob on Monday October 24, 2016 @10:26PM (#12784789)
> But unless the music also contains some 1Hz modulation (or a power-of-two multiple thereof) then the 432 base frequency isn't related to anything fundamental in musical terms.

Presumably the music's timing is based on seconds, though, right? That might conceivably mean that primeness could potentially matter. I don't really think that it does, mind. But I'm not so quick to think that it doesn't, either.

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