The Tenth:
The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.
Of course this is a dead letter because of a misinterpretation of the Commerce Clause, but there it is. If the Constitution didn't literally give the federal government a power, it doesn't have that power.
[EDIT:] to avoid confusion, the First is my favorite.
Government meddling in that in this case is forcing people to do something they are uncomfortable with simply because they paid money while simultaneously running the risk of legal action if at any point you want to abort the transaction.
The most basic example is akin to forcing somebody to sign a contract without knowing who they are signing it with.
If complying with anti-discrimination law is a problem for you, you should generally not be in this line of business.
Here's one of their maps: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Redlining#/media/File:Home_Own...
Separating whites from colored was also explicit government policy. It was called Jim Crow. We never tried "this kind of thing".
http://www.ferris.edu/jimcrow/links/misclink/examples/homepa...
The law was actually far more intrusive back then than it is today. For example, you might be shocked to discover that Jim Crow laws actually mandated discrimination in sexual relationships!
The closest we've come to trying this kind of thing is the present day, where at least sexual relationships have been deregulated. (This one is a biggie for me, I discriminate pretty strongly against white women and think the government should not restrict my freedom in that way.)
A business that you can walk into off the street should ALMOST never be able to discriminate.
I say almost in both cases because absolutes are the tools by which rules are abused.
Really? Which amendment is that one?
There are a few prominent restrictions on particular kinds of government meddling in the US. This by no means generalizes to the rest of it.