Re:The curse of the potato
by harigov on Saturday April 30, 2016 @12:25PM
(#11602311)
This article uses such a broad definition of pre-colonial times. When exactly is that? I don't believe India was almost empty around 1400 AD. Quite contrary, given that there were already well established empires at that time.
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Not hardly, by that time, Muslim invaders were half-way through 4 centuries of slaughtering 100 million Hindus (and I'm sure Sikh and Janes), and were hardly depopulating the land. And, yeah, there was a lot of history of empires and such before the start of this in the 13th Century.