Bayesianism has the concept of an A_p distribution, which is roughly "the probability that the probability is p".
My A_p distribution for this coin would be (almost) 50% on 0 and 50% on 1, because I don't think it's possible to bias a coin except by making both faces the same. If I didn't think that, it might be proportional to something like (p-1/2)^2, because more extreme biases seem more likely.
In both cases, my probability of seeing a heads is 1/2, because that's the mean of the A_p distribution. But after flipping the coin once, my A_p distribution updates, and now I can give a probability of seeing the next toss come up heads.
I haven't read the whole of it, but relevant chapter from Jaynes: http://www-biba.inrialpes.fr/Jaynes/cc18i.pdf
If you do multiple coin flips, you have more of these Bernoulli variables but they all share a common parameter p.
One such example model is the Beta-Bernoulli process: http://www.math.uah.edu/stat/bernoulli/BetaBernoulli.html
This prior sounds like the A_p distribution.
The point is it's a distribution, not a number. You can't just say "I think the probability of seeing heads is p". But if you say "I think the probability of seeing heads is distributed like this, which has a mean of p", then that captures everything you need to know about the coin to update your expectations when you see the results.
(In case it was unclear, A_p isn't a specific shape of distribution, or class of shapes of distributions, like beta or gaussian. It's a distribution over hypothesis-space, where the hypotheses are probabilities, and can have any valid distribution shape.)
Imagine one random variable p at the top center of a page, and then several variables under it, each connected by an arrow coming from p.
The random variables down there are the coin flips (each results in 0 or 1), and they are identically and independently distributed with a Bernoulli(p) distribution. And p itself is a random variable which has a distribution (expressing how likely each p is).
I'm just clarifying that all this fits into normal probability theory, there is no need to introduce any sort of "meta-probability theory".
(With skill, it's possible to bias a coin toss, but that's different.)
If the chance of biasing it T>H is 50% and biasing the other way is also 50% then the average is 1/2 (in a Schroedinger's cat kind of way)
At the same time the frequentist is right. p(heads) for the specific coin you're given is not 1/2