Running 50km after 82h of fasting

Re:Running 50km after 82h of fasting by Bjartr on Tuesday January 19, 2016 @02:23PM (#10933201)

While your intuition here may well be valid, to an outside observer it looks like you're cherry picking numbers without justification. Why 25th-40th percentiles? Do we know the distribution of first-and-only marathon runners to repeat runners or is this a pure intuition? If the latter I would be concerned about the flaws that exist in human thinking when it comes to generalizing over groups.

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Re:Running 50km after 82h of fasting by brianwawok on Tuesday January 19, 2016 @03:15PM (#10933629)

> Why 25th-40th percentiles

Why not? Someone wanted to quantify "slightly faster than average", so I made up some percentiles. I don't think there is a scientific definition of "slightly faster than average" so I think I can do this. You could I suppose counter with you think it means "35th-49th percentiles" which is valid but doesn't really change the argument too much.

> Do we know the distribution of first-and-only marathon runners to repeat runners or is this a pure intuition?

Just intuition. It would be a tricky thing to survey, as you would need to wait for all current people who have ran exactly 1 marathon to die, to confirm they do not indeed run more .

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Re:Running 50km after 82h of fasting by zimpenfish on Wednesday January 20, 2016 @09:58AM (#10938462)

> Do we know the distribution of first-and-only marathon runners to repeat runners

I did look for those stats for London but I couldn't find anything relevant - I'd assume they collect that information on the entry form but it's possible they don't or just don't care to publicise it later.

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