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Re:Bayes's Theorem: What's the Big Deal? by skybrian on Tuesday January 05, 2016 @12:20PM (#10844487)
How does that work? It doesn't sound like a well-defined distribution since the area under the curve needs to be 1.
Re:Bayes's Theorem: What's the Big Deal? by bmh100 on Tuesday January 05, 2016 @12:55PM (#10844753)
It has to do with calculus. If the probability of a given result approaches zero as the result itself approaches positive or negative infinity, then the area under the curve approaches 1.

Imagine 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 ... to infinity. The sum approaches 1 as the denominator approaches infinity. With calculus, we can determine that with mathematical methods.

Re:Bayes's Theorem: What's the Big Deal? by gipp on Tuesday January 05, 2016 @01:08PM (#10844832)
I think he was referring specifically to an unbounded uniform distribution, which is indeed not well-defined.
Re:Bayes's Theorem: What's the Big Deal? by Fomite on Tuesday January 05, 2016 @12:41PM (#10844643)
It's more of a philosophical statement than an actual implementation. Mainly that frequentist analysis begins with the prior "I dunno, could be anything..."

See also: The calculus answer.

Re:Bayes's Theorem: What's the Big Deal? by tel on Wednesday January 06, 2016 @08:28AM (#10850351)
It turns out that priors don't actually need to be distributions all the time. This often occurs when seeking maximally "uninformative" priors.