How Can There Still Be a Sex Difference, Even When There Is No Sex Difference?

Re:How Can There Still Be a Sex Difference, Even When There ... by chi-sq on Tuesday July 07, 2015 @12:19PM (#9846395)

(currently finishing Masters in Methodology/Statistics in Psychology) There is evidence of inter-sex differences (and in many areas girls are at advantage), but the provably innate part is small, and the intra-group variance coming from other factors (that may include elements of culture) is much bigger. This allows for conclusions on population, not individual level. On a related note, affirmative action programs seem to work to societies benefit.

Another comment that phrased it well: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=9845165

And absolutely regardless of John Money being misguided and vilified (I don't think I even heard of him before recent Catholic backlash), gender is a legitimate and in depth academic topic.

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Re:How Can There Still Be a Sex Difference, Even When There ... by nailer on Monday July 20, 2015 @10:11AM (#9916119)

> And absolutely regardless of John Money being misguided and vilified

I just saw this. It worried me that you're apparently studying psychology but consider someone who abused a child to prove a theory to be 'vilified'.

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Re:How Can There Still Be a Sex Difference, Even When There ... by geomark on Tuesday July 07, 2015 @09:04PM (#9849155)

Yes, I understand that the means may differ significantly but the variances are fairly large so there is lots of overlap between sexes, just as the article linked by OP discusses. Although, there are many characteristics and they all aren't going to exhibit the same spreads. I wonder if some have significantly smaller variances. The characteristic I keep noticing is how rough young boys are when they play compared to young girls. My small sample shows a very tight variance; young girls are much softer in their play compared to boys. Is that cultural conditioning at such a young age?

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