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Re:Why are more than 10M homes vacant in India? by netcan on Monday May 25, 2015 @08:30AM (#9599775)
Some foundational theories of private property (very influential in the British Empire and the US) would have had a hard time dealing with the concept of vacant homes as legitimate property. Occupying or putting property to productive use is part of some definitions of property.

They might class perpetually vacant properties as abandoned and therefore returned to the common. When New world land was doled out in square mile allotments (The US, Australia..), improving the land was a prerequisite to your claim. This is often thought of historically as a deal: 'you improve this land and we'll give it to you.' But the justifications at the time was more philosophical: you improve this land and you own it, by definition.'

Re:Why are more than 10M homes vacant in India? by nine_k on Monday May 25, 2015 @02:07PM (#9601018)
The land was granted to new settlers in exchange for promist to cultivate it. I suppose that the builders did not build their houses in exchange for anything beside money, and have no additional limiting clauses, and are free to do with their buildings what they will.

If they do, though, it's high time to check if these additional clauses are honored.

Re:Why are more than 10M homes vacant in India? by netcan on Tuesday May 26, 2015 @04:35AM (#9603526)
I think you are putting your finger on a relevant subtlety. When we look back at those policies now we think of it s a deal, quid quo pro. I think it probably did function that way at the time too. But in terms of the philosophical argument underpinning the policy, its was based on the idea that by applying your labour you take appropriate property from the common, or you "make" property or whatnot.

This was based in ideas trying to explain what property is, why one person was rights to it and another doesn't. A wild forest is not property. A farm is. Hence labour, habitation, productive use etc. make something property. It's the kind of philosophy that gets very theological, with precise definitions and arguments between theorists that seem very arcane an pointless in retrospect.

I'm not promoting the theory. It just seemed relevant in the context of a liberal/libertarian quip. These ideas are foundational to ideas of private property, later economic freedom etc. It's part of the history of ideas related to right leaning politics today.

In practice, I'm not sue if this is workable. But if it is, I don't think an abstract sanctity of private property is necessarily a barrier. That unused property makes fro a weaker claim is justifiable by common sensibilities, right or left wing philosophy.