Re:Why Ken Jennings’s ‘Jeopardy’ Streak Is Nearly Impossible...
by jdoerrie on Thursday May 07, 2015 @04:11AM
(#9503820)
Given that we stop after the first failure technically this should be a negative binomial distribution (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Negative_binomial_distribution) with p = 0.979 and r = 1. The mean is p / (1-p) = 46.62. Also there is a p ^ 75 = 0.204 chance that someone of same skill will achieve a better score.
[ Parent
| on HN ]
There are no comments on this comment yet.